Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:
1. It introduced dyarchy at the central level.
2. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
3. It separated provincial budgets from the Central budget.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced dyarchy (dual rule) at the provincial level, dividing subjects into 'reserved' and 'transferred'. It was the Government of India Act of 1935 that abolished provincial dyarchy and introduced dyarchy at the Centre.

Statement 2 is correct: The Act introduced, for the first time, bicameralism (a legislature with two houses) and direct elections in the country. The Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).

Statement 3 is correct: It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their own budgets.

With reference to the pardoning powers of the President and the Governor in India, consider the following statements:
1. Both the President and the Governor can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute a death sentence.
2. Only the President can grant pardon in cases where the punishment is by a Court Martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Governor has the power to suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, he/she cannot "pardon" a death sentence. The absolute power to pardon a death sentence lies only with the President of India.

Statement 2 is correct: The President is the only authority who can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission, or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a Court Martial (military court). The Governor does not have any such power regarding military courts.

Consider the following statements regarding the Anti-Defection Law in India:
1. It was added to the Constitution through the 52nd Amendment Act.
2. The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection is referred to the Election Commission of India.
3. The law provides for an absolute exception if a party merges with another party and not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 3).

Statement 1 is correct: The Tenth Schedule, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, was inserted in the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision on questions as to disqualification on the ground of defection is referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of the respective House, not the Election Commission of India.

Statement 3 is correct: A member of a House shall not be disqualified if his original political party merges with another political party, provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger (this threshold was changed from one-third to two-thirds by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003).

Which of the following writs can be issued by the Supreme Court against administrative authorities as well as judicial/quasi-judicial bodies?
1. Certiorari
2. Prohibition
3. Mandamus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Initially, Certiorari was issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that Certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The writ of Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private individuals.

Statement 3 is correct: Mandamus can be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose. Therefore, both Certiorari and Mandamus can be issued against administrative authorities.

With reference to the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution has prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative) of the members of the Election Commission.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. Any other Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India (Article 324) has NOT prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative, or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. It has also not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court (i.e., by a resolution passed by Parliament with a special majority).

Statement 3 is correct: Any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

The "Basic Structure Doctrine" limits the amending power of the Parliament. Which of the following cases are associated with the evolution of this doctrine?
1. Golaknath Case (1967)
2. Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
3. Minerva Mills Case (1980)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three cases are deeply associated with the evolution of the amending power and the Basic Structure Doctrine.

In the Golaknath Case (1967), the Supreme Court reversed its earlier stance and ruled that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights, stating they are transcendental and immutable.

In the historic Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court overruled Golaknath and established the "Basic Structure Doctrine." It held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, under Article 368, but it cannot alter the 'basic structure' or essential features of the Constitution.

In the Minerva Mills Case (1980), the Supreme Court further strengthened the doctrine by striking down a clause of the 42nd Amendment Act that had excluded constitutional amendments from judicial review, stating that judicial review itself is a basic feature of the Constitution.

Consider the following features of the Indian Constitution:
1. Single Constitution for the entire country
2. All-India Services
3. Integrated Judiciary
4. Division of powers between the Centre and States
Which of the above are considered "Unitary" or non-federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1, 2 and 3 only|2, 3 and 4 only|1, 3 and 4 only|1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

The Indian Constitution contains both federal and unitary features.

Points 1, 2, and 3 are Unitary (Non-Federal) features. A Single Constitution ensures that states do not have their own separate constitutions (unlike true federations like the USA). All-India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) violate the principle of federalism as they are recruited by the Centre but serve in states. An Integrated Judiciary (Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts) enforces both Central and State laws, which is a unitary feature.

Point 4 is incorrect in this context. The Division of Powers (through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule) is a fundamental characteristic of a Federal system, not a Unitary one.

With reference to the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. They were added upon the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. The Constitution provides for the direct enforcement of these duties by the courts.
3. The duty to pay taxes was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee but was not included in the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Fundamental Duties were added to Part IVA of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable in nature. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts, and there is no legal sanction against their violation (unless Parliament enacts a specific law for their implementation).

Statement 3 is correct: The Swaran Singh Committee had recommended that the duty to pay taxes should be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens. However, this recommendation was not accepted by the government and was not included in Part IVA of the Constitution.

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368:
1. A bill to amend the Constitution requires the prior permission of the President before introduction.
2. If there is a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over an amendment bill, a joint sitting can be summoned.
3. The President must give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill passed by Parliament.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only one

All, Indian Polity

Only Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: A bill to amend the Constitution under Article 368 can be introduced in either House of Parliament and does not require the prior permission of the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Each House must pass the bill separately by a special majority. If there is a disagreement, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the constitutional amendment bill.

Statement 3 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a constitutional amendment bill. He cannot withhold his assent or return the bill for reconsideration.

According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states. Consider the following statements in this context:
1. A bill for this purpose can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.
2. The President must refer the bill to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views, and the Parliament is bound by those views.
3. Such a law is considered an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 3 lays down two conditions. One of them is that a bill contemplating the formation of a new state or alteration of boundaries/names can be introduced in Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the President must refer the bill to the concerned state legislature for its views within a specified period, the President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 4 of the Constitution explicitly declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states or alteration of boundaries (under Article 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. They can be passed by a simple majority and ordinary legislative process.

Consider the following statements regarding the loss of Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955:
1. When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates.
2. A citizen can be deprived of citizenship if he/she has been ordinarily resident out of India for five years continuously.
3. Deprivation of citizenship is a compulsory termination by the Central government if the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: This is known as termination. When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central government can deprive a person of their citizenship if they have been ordinarily resident out of India for SEVEN years continuously (not five years).

Statement 3 is correct: Deprivation is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central government. Conditions include: obtaining citizenship by fraud, showing disloyalty to the Constitution, communicating with the enemy during war, or being imprisoned for two years in any country within five years of naturalization.

With reference to Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, which of the following falls under the definition of 'State'?
1. Municipalities and Panchayats
2. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
3. The Judiciary while exercising its judicial functions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 12, the term 'State' includes all local authorities, such as municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

Statement 2 is correct: The 'State' also includes all other authorities, which means statutory or non-statutory bodies like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc., that are funded or heavily controlled by the government.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court has clarified that the Judiciary, while exercising its rule-making or administrative powers, falls under the definition of 'State'. However, when it is exercising its core *judicial functions* (like giving judgments), it is NOT considered a 'State' under Article 12. This ensures the independence of the judiciary from writ jurisdictions against its own judgments.

Consider the following statements regarding Article 14 of the Indian Constitution:
1. The concept of 'Equality before law' is of American origin, while 'Equal protection of laws' is of British origin.
2. The rule of 'Equality before law' is not absolute, and there are constitutional exceptions to it.
3. Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification of persons, objects, and transactions by the law.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of 'equality before law' is of British origin, while the concept of 'equal protection of laws' has been taken from the American Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: Equality before the law is not absolute. There are several constitutional exceptions. For example, Article 361 provides immunity to the President of India and State Governors from criminal proceedings during their term of office.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 14 forbids class legislation (discriminating based on arbitrary grounds). However, it allows for 'reasonable classification'. This means the law can treat different groups differently if there is an 'intelligible differentia' (a clear reason for the distinction) and a rational nexus to the objective sought to be achieved.

With respect to the Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28), consider the following statements:
1. Article 25 covers only religious beliefs and does not extend to religious practices or rituals.
2. The State is empowered to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, or political activity associated with religious practice.
3. Religious instruction is completely prohibited in institutions wholly maintained out of State funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals) that are essential or integral parts of a religion.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 25(2), the State is permitted to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice. It can also provide for social welfare and reform.

Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. However, this does not apply to institutions administered by the State but established under an endowment or trust that requires religious instruction.

Consider the following differences between the Attorney General of India and the Advocate General of a State:
1. The Attorney General is appointed by the President, whereas the Advocate General is appointed by the Governor.
2. The Constitution fixes the minimum age for appointment as Advocate General, but no such age is fixed for the Attorney General.
3. The remuneration of both the Attorney General and the Advocate General is explicitly fixed by the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 76 provides for the Attorney General of India, appointed by the President. Article 165 provides for the Advocate General of a State, appointed by the Governor.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not fix any minimum age for either post. For Attorney General, the person must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge. For Advocate General, the person must be qualified to be a High Court judge.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The remuneration of neither the Attorney General nor the Advocate General is fixed by the Constitution. The Attorney General receives such remuneration as the President may determine, and the Advocate General receives such remuneration as the Governor may determine.

Which of the following offices or institutions fall under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal in India?
1. The Prime Minister of India
2. Any society or trust wholly or partly financed by the Government
3. Members of Parliament (for statements made or votes given in Parliament)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The jurisdiction of the Lokpal extends to the Prime Minister, except in matters relating to international relations, security, public order, atomic energy, and space.

Statement 2 is correct: Institutions, trusts, or societies that are wholly or partly financed by the government, or those receiving foreign donations above Rs. 10 lakhs under FCRA, fall under the jurisdiction of the Lokpal. However, institutions purely aided by the government are excluded.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Although the Lokpal covers Members of Parliament and Union Ministers, Article 105 grants them parliamentary privileges. Therefore, the Lokpal cannot inquire into any matter related to anything said or a vote given by an MP in Parliament or any committee thereof.

Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976?
1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Republic
4. Integrity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|1, 2 and 4 only|1, 3 and 4 only|1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4 only

All, Indian Polity

The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.

This amendment added three new words to the Preamble: 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'. It changed the description of India from a "Sovereign Democratic Republic" to a "Sovereign, Socialist Secular Democratic Republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".

The term 'Republic' was already a part of the original Preamble adopted on November 26, 1949. Therefore, option B (1, 2 and 4 only) is the correct answer.

Regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
2. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
3. It can take up any case of public importance for investigation in a state only with the consent of the state government or under the orders of the Supreme Court/High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The CBI is NOT a statutory body. It was set up in 1963 by an executive resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It only *derives its powers* to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946, but it wasn't established by it.

Statement 2 is correct: The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-1964).

Statement 3 is correct: Law and order is a State subject. The CBI needs the 'general' or 'specific' consent of the state government to investigate crimes within that state under Section 6 of the DSPE Act. However, the Supreme Court and High Courts can order the CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the state's consent.

Match the following Committees of the Constituent Assembly with their respective Chairmen:
1. Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Provincial Constitution Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one pair|Only two pairs|Only three pairs|All four pairs

Only three pairs

All, Indian Polity

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Union Powers Committee was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Provincial Constitution Committee was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Steering Committee and the Rules of Procedure Committee were headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Pair 4 is correctly matched: The Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Hence, exactly three pairs are correctly matched.

Consider the following differences between Parliamentary and Presidential forms of government:
1. The Presidential system is based on the separation of powers, while the Parliamentary system is based on the fusion of powers.
2. In a Presidential system, the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts.
3. The Parliamentary system provides a more stable government but may lead to a government by non-experts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Presidential system (e.g., USA) relies on a strict separation of powers between the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. The Parliamentary system (e.g., India, UK) is based on the coordination and fusion of the executive and legislative organs.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In a Parliamentary system, the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature (Lower House). In a Presidential system, the President is not accountable to the legislature and cannot be removed by a no-confidence motion.

Statement 3 is correct: The Presidential system provides a highly stable government because the President has a fixed term. The Parliamentary system is relatively unstable (can fall anytime if it loses majority) and ministers are typically politicians rather than domain experts, whereas a President can appoint subject-matter experts to their cabinet.

Under Article 358 and Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are impacted during a National Emergency. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 358 automatically suspends the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19.
2. Article 359 automatically suspends the enforcement of all other Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 19 can be suspended only when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 3).

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate presidential order is required.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 359 does NOT automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. Instead, it empowers the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights. Furthermore, the 44th Amendment Act stated that the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

Statement 3 is correct: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted Article 358. It specified that Article 19 rights are suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of 'war' or 'external aggression', and NOT on the ground of 'armed rebellion'.

Consider the following statements regarding the writ of 'Quo-Warranto':
1. It is issued to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office.
2. It can be issued against a ministerial office or a private office.
3. Unlike other writs, this writ can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The literal meaning of 'Quo-Warranto' is 'by what authority or warrant'. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office, thereby preventing illegal usurpation of public office.

Statement 2 is incorrect: This writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It CANNOT be issued in cases of a ministerial office or a private office.

Statement 3 is correct: This is a unique feature of Quo-Warranto. Unlike the other four writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari) where the doctrine of 'locus standi' strictly applies (meaning only the aggrieved person can approach the court), the writ of Quo-Warranto can be sought by any interested person.

Regarding the Central Information Commission (CIC), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 324.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a term of 5 years or until the age of 65 years, as per the original RTI Act, 2005.
3. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019 empowered the Central Government to prescribe the term, salary, and allowances of the Information Commissioners.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|3 only|1, 2 and 3

3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, not a constitutional body. It was established by the Central Government in 2005 under the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005. Article 324 is related to the Election Commission of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect in the current context: While the original RTI Act 2005 did stipulate a 5-year term, this provision was amended.

Statement 3 is correct: The RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019 significantly changed the service conditions. It removed the fixed 5-year tenure and stated that the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government. It also empowered the Centre to determine their salaries and allowances, removing the parity they previously had with the Election Commissioners.

Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights in India:
1. They protect individuals strictly against the arbitrary actions of the State and are never available against private individuals.
2. The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act.
3. Fundamental Rights are absolute and immune from constitutional amendments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: While Fundamental Rights are primarily available against the arbitrary actions of the State, some of them are also available against the actions of private individuals. Examples include Article 15(2) (access to public places), Article 17 (abolition of untouchability), Article 23 (prohibition of human trafficking), and Article 24 (prohibition of child labor).

Statement 2 is correct: Originally, there were seven fundamental rights. However, the Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are not absolute; they are subject to reasonable restrictions (e.g., public order, morality, security of the state). Furthermore, they are not immune from amendments. The Parliament can amend them under Article 368, provided the amendment does not alter the 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution.

With reference to the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC), consider the following statements:
1. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List and the Concurrent List.
2. It has the power to punish the violators of human rights directly.
3. The recommendations of the SHRC are binding on the state government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only one

All, Indian Polity

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Under the Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993, an SHRC can inquire into violations of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List (List-II) and the Concurrent List (List-III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. If the National Human Rights Commission is already inquiring into a matter, the SHRC cannot inquire into it.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The functions of the SHRC are mainly recommendatory in nature. It has NO power to punish the violators of human rights, nor can it award any monetary relief to the victim directly. It can only recommend the state government or authority to pay compensation or initiate proceedings.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The recommendations of the SHRC are not binding on the state government or authority. However, the government must inform the commission about the action taken on its recommendations within one month.

Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:
1. It is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every five years.
2. Its recommendations are binding on the Union Government.
3. The qualifications of the members are explicitly prescribed in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951.

With reference to the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The term 'Basic Structure' is explicitly mentioned in Article 368 of the Constitution.
2. The Supreme Court established this doctrine in the Minerva Mills case (1980).
3. Free and fair elections are considered a part of the basic structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term 'Basic Structure' is nowhere mentioned in the text of the Constitution. It is a judicial innovation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The doctrine of the Basic Structure was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), not the Minerva Mills case (though Minerva Mills reaffirmed it).

Statement 3 is correct: Through various judgments over the years, the Supreme Court has declared several features as part of the Basic Structure. "Free and fair elections" (along with supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, separation of powers, etc.) is recognized as a fundamental, unamendable feature of the Constitution.

Regarding the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Constitution specifies the strength of the Commission as a chairman and ten members.
2. The entire expenses of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. It is concerned with the classification of services and cadre management.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission. It has left the matter to the discretion of the President, who determines its composition. Usually, it consists of nine to eleven members including the chairman.

Statement 2 is correct: To safeguard the independence of the UPSC, the entire expenses including the salaries, allowances, and pensions of the chairman and members of the UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to vote of Parliament.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The UPSC is only a central recruiting agency. It is not concerned with the classification of services, pay and service conditions, cadre management, or training. These matters are handled by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy was/were added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976)?
1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
2. To minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
3. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list:
1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the directive to "minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities" (Article 38) was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

When the President's Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, what are the possible constitutional consequences?
1. The President can assume to himself the powers vested in the State High Court.
2. The Parliament is empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List.
3. The State Legislative Assembly is either suspended or dissolved.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly states that the President cannot assume to himself the powers vested in the High Court of the State or suspend the provisions of the Constitution relating to the High Court. The constitutional status and powers of the High Court remain intact.

Statement 2 is correct: During President's Rule, the President can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. Consequently, Parliament can make laws on matters enumerated in the State List.

Statement 3 is correct: The state council of ministers is dismissed, and the state legislative assembly is either suspended or dissolved by the President.

Which of the following devices are considered as tools of Direct Democracy?
1. Referendum
2. Initiative
3. Recall
4. Plebiscite
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|1, 3 and 4 only|2, 3 and 4 only|1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

All, Indian Polity

All four are established devices of direct democracy. In a direct democracy (like Switzerland), the people exercise their supreme power directly.

1. Referendum: A procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes.
2. Initiative: A method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment.
3. Recall: A method by which the voters can remove a representative or an officer before the expiry of their term if they fail to discharge their duties properly.
4. Plebiscite: A method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public importance, often used to resolve territorial disputes.

Consider the following statements about the Solicitor General of India:
1. It is a constitutional post created under Article 76 of the Constitution.
2. The Solicitor General assists the Attorney General in fulfilling his official duties.
3. Unlike the Attorney General, the Solicitor General does not have the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Solicitor General of India is a statutory post, not a constitutional one. Article 76 of the Constitution only mentions the Attorney General of India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Solicitor General is subordinate to the Attorney General and assists him/her in handling legal matters and representing the Government of India in courts.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 88 of the Constitution gives the Attorney General the right to speak in, and take part in the proceedings of, either House of Parliament (without the right to vote). The Solicitor General does not enjoy this constitutional privilege.

The Government of India Act, 1935 was a milestone in the constitutional history of India. Which of the following provisions were included in this Act?
1. Establishment of an All-India Federation comprising provinces and princely states.
2. Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of provincial autonomy.
3. The establishment of a Reserve Bank of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three statements are correct.

1. The Act provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. (However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it).

2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces (which was introduced by the 1919 Act) and introduced 'provincial autonomy' in its place. It introduced dyarchy at the Centre instead.

3. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country.

Consider the following statements regarding the Right against Exploitation:
1. Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor, and it protects citizens against actions by both the State and private individuals.
2. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any occupation whatsoever.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other similar forms of forced labor. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 24 explicitly prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous activities (like construction work or railways). However, the Constitution itself does NOT prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work, though subsequent statutory laws (like the Child Labour Amendment Act, 2016) have banned the employment of children in all occupations, making exceptions only for family enterprises.

Which of the following disputes fall under the 'Original Jurisdiction' of the Supreme Court of India as per Article 131?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more states.
2. A dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, or covenant.
3. A dispute between two or more states.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Article 131 of the Constitution grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in any dispute involving federal matters, such as: a) between the Centre and one or more states; b) between the Centre and any state(s) on one side and one or more states on the other; or c) between two or more states.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly excludes certain disputes from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. A dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, or similar instrument executed before the commencement of the Constitution and continues to be in operation falls outside this jurisdiction. The President may, however, refer such disputes to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion under Article 143.

Consider the following statements regarding the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Indian Parliament:
1. It consists of 22 members, all elected exclusively from the Lok Sabha.
2. A minister cannot be elected as a member of this committee.
3. The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members, out of which 15 are elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha. It is not exclusively from the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: As per parliamentary rules, a minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the PAC. If a member, after election, becomes a minister, they cease to be a member of the committee.

Statement 3 is correct: The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. By convention (since 1967), the Chairman of the PAC is always selected from the Opposition.

With reference to the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA), consider the following statements:
1. It extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to both Fifth and Sixth Schedule areas.
2. It empowers the Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The PESA Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution (relating to Panchayats) only to the Scheduled Areas covered under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. It does not apply to the tribal areas under the Sixth Schedule (which are governed by Autonomous District Councils).

Statement 2 is correct: A core feature of the PESA Act is that it empowers the Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resources, and the customary mode of dispute resolution.

Consider the following statements regarding the Inter-State Council:
1. It is a permanent constitutional body established directly by the Constitution under Article 263.
2. It is chaired by the Union Home Minister.
3. The recommendations of the Inter-State Council are advisory in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional body. Article 263 empowers the President to establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interests would be served by its establishment. It was established in 1990 based on the Sarkaria Commission's recommendations.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the Union Home Minister. The Home Minister is the chairman of the Zonal Councils.

Statement 3 is correct: The function of the council to inquire and advise upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court's jurisdiction. Its recommendations are purely advisory and not binding on the Centre or the States.

In the context of the Indian Parliament, what is the difference between a Money Bill and a Financial Bill (Category I)?
1. Both Money Bills and Financial Bills (Category I) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. Both require the prior recommendation of the President for their introduction.
3. The Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject a Financial Bill (Category I) but not a Money Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

All three

All, Indian Polity

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: A Money Bill (Article 110) and a Financial Bill Category I (Article 117(1)) share a similarity: neither can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. They must be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is correct: Both bills require the prior recommendation of the President before they are introduced in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is correct: While the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill (it can only delay it for 14 days), a Financial Bill (Category I) is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an ordinary bill once it is introduced. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has full power to amend or reject a Financial Bill (Category I), and there can be a joint sitting in case of a deadlock.

Which of the following members do NOT participate in the election of the President of India?
1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils.
3. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

The Electoral College for the President consists of: (a) elected members of both Houses of Parliament; (b) elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states; and (c) elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Statement 1 is correct: Nominated members of both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha do NOT participate in the President's election.

Statement 2 is correct: Members (both elected and nominated) of the State Legislative Councils (in bicameral legislatures) do NOT participate in the election of the President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi DO participate in the election (added by the 70th Amendment Act, 1992). Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Which of the following are compulsory (obligatory) provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)?
1. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
2. Granting financial powers to the panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes.
3. Reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women in panchayats at all three levels.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

The 73rd Amendment Act contains both compulsory (obligatory) and voluntary (discretionary) provisions.

Statement 1 is compulsory: The Act mandates indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

Statement 2 is voluntary: Granting financial powers to the panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees is left to the discretion of the state legislature. It is not an obligatory provision.

Statement 3 is compulsory: The Act mandates the reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women (including the number of seats reserved for women belonging to SCs and STs) in panchayats at all three levels.

Consider the following statements regarding the specification of Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs):
1. The President is empowered to specify the list of SCs and STs for a particular State in consultation with the Governor of that State.
2. Any subsequent inclusion in or exclusion from the list of SCs and STs can only be done by an executive order of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Under Articles 341 and 342, the President is empowered to specify the castes, races, or tribes that shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in relation to a State or Union Territory. In case of a State, the President makes this notification after consultation with the Governor of the concerned State.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Any subsequent modification (inclusion or exclusion) in the list of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes can only be done by a law made by the Parliament. The President cannot vary the initial notification by a subsequent executive order.

Consider the following statements regarding the writ jurisdictions of the Supreme Court and the High Courts:
1. The Supreme Court's territorial jurisdiction for issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.
2. The High Court's subject-matter jurisdiction for issuing writs is wider than that of the Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme Court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction, whereas the High Court cannot.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory of India, whereas a High Court can issue writs only against individuals or authorities within its territorial jurisdiction (unless the cause of action arises within its territory).

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (under Article 32). A High Court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose (i.e., enforcement of ordinary legal rights) under Article 226.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The opposite is true. Article 32 is a Fundamental Right itself, so the Supreme Court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. Article 226 is discretionary, which means the High Court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.

With reference to the Chief Minister of a State, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution requires that a person must prove his majority in the state assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister.
2. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature cannot be appointed as Chief Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Neither 1 nor 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister. The Governor may first appoint him as Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for a consecutive period of six months. Within this time, he must get elected to the state legislature (either House), failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India acts as a "guide, friend, and philosopher" to which of the following Parliamentary Committees?

Estimates Committee|Committee on Public Undertakings|Public Accounts Committee|Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Public Accounts Committee

All, Indian Polity

The correct answer is the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).

The CAG submits three audit reports to the President: audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts, and audit report on public undertakings. The President lays these reports before both Houses of Parliament. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines these reports and reports its findings to Parliament. In this function, the CAG assists the PAC, thereby acting as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the committee.

Consider the following statements regarding the Zonal Councils in India:
1. They are constitutional bodies established under Article 263 of the Constitution.
2. The Union Home Minister acts as the common chairman of all the Zonal Councils.
3. The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: Zonal Councils are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies. They were established by an Act of Parliament, namely, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956. (Note: The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body under Article 263).

Statement 2 is correct: The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.

Statement 3 is correct: The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.

With reference to the ordinance-making power of the President of India under Article 123, consider the following statements:
1. An ordinance can be promulgated only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session.
2. The maximum life of an ordinance can be six months and six weeks.
3. An ordinance cannot be used to amend the Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can promulgate an ordinance when either both the Houses of Parliament are not in session OR when even one House is not in session. This is because a law requires passage by both Houses; thus, if one House is not in session, the regular legislative process cannot function.

Statement 2 is correct: An ordinance must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly. Since the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot exceed six months, the maximum possible life of an ordinance is six months and six weeks (if Parliament takes the full six weeks to act upon it).

Statement 3 is correct: An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws. However, a constitutional amendment cannot be enacted through an ordinance.

Regarding the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament (Article 108), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It can be summoned for ordinary bills, financial bills, and money bills.
2. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting.
3. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of both the Houses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: A joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills and financial bills only. It does not apply to Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills. For Money Bills, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, and Constitutional Amendment Bills must be passed by each House separately.

Statement 2 is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. If absent, the Deputy Speaker presides. If he is also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. (The Chairman of Rajya Sabha NEVER presides over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House).

Statement 3 is correct: The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses.

Consider the following statements regarding the creation or abolition of a State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad):
1. The Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
2. The parliamentary law passed for this purpose is considered an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 169 provides for the creation or abolition of a State Legislative Council. Parliament can act only if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly states that any such law made by Parliament for the creation or abolition of a legislative council is not to be deemed an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. It can be passed by a simple majority in Parliament.

With reference to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), consider the following statements:
1. It was granted constitutional status by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It investigates and monitors all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes.
3. Its recommendations regarding the inclusion of communities in the backward classes list are binding on the Union Government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 2).

Statement 1 is correct: Initially a statutory body, the NCBC was granted constitutional status under Article 338B by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018.

Statement 2 is correct: Similar to the Commissions for SCs and STs, the NCBC is mandated to investigate, monitor, and evaluate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The advice and recommendations of the NCBC are ordinarily binding, but the Union Government can reject them if it provides valid reasons. Thus, they are not strictly "binding" in an absolute legal sense, as the final authority to notify backward classes lies with the President.

Consider the following grounds mentioned in Article 19(2) on which reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the 'Freedom of Speech and Expression':
1. Defamation
2. Contempt of court
3. Friendly relations with foreign states
4. Public health and morality
Which of the above are constitutionally valid grounds for restricting freedom of speech?

1, 2 and 3 only|2, 3 and 4 only|1, 3 and 4 only|1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Article 19(2) allows the State to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression on eight grounds: sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.

Therefore, 1 (Defamation), 2 (Contempt of court), and 3 (Friendly relations with foreign states) are correct grounds.

Point 4 is incorrect: "Morality" is a valid ground, but "Public health" is NOT a ground for restricting freedom of speech and expression. Public health is a ground for restricting the Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25).

Which Article of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State?

Article 44|Article 50|Article 51|Article 39A

Article 50

All, Indian Polity

The correct answer is Article 50.

Article 50 of the Constitution directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. This ensures judicial independence. This directive principle was heavily implemented when the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) of 1973 was enacted, which separated judicial magistrates from executive magistrates in the districts.

Additional Info: Article 44 deals with the Uniform Civil Code, Article 51 deals with the promotion of international peace and security, and Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.

Consider the following statements regarding the historical Charter Act of 1833:
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India.
2. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, making it a purely administrative body.
3. It successfully introduced a system of open competition for the selection of civil servants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentinck became the first).

Statement 2 is correct: It ended the commercial activities of the East India Company. The company became a purely administrative body holding Indian territories in trust for the British Crown.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act of 1833 *attempted* to introduce a system of open competition for civil servants, but this provision was negated due to heavy opposition from the Court of Directors. The open competition system was finally introduced later by the Charter Act of 1853.

With reference to the Judges of a High Court in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are appointed by the Governor of the respective state.
2. They hold office until they attain the age of 62 years.
3. They can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The judges of a High Court are appointed by the President of India (under Article 217), not by the Governor. The Governor is only consulted by the President during the appointment process.

Statement 2 is correct: A judge of a High Court holds office until he/she attains the age of 62 years (unlike Supreme Court judges, who retire at 65).

Statement 3 is correct: A High Court judge can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of the Parliament. The procedure and grounds for removal (proved misbehaviour or incapacity) are exactly the same as those for a Supreme Court judge.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission of India:
1. It is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
2. The orders issued by the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
3. State legislative assemblies can modify the orders of the Delimitation Commission to suit local demographics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in close coordination with the Election Commission of India to redraw the boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies.

Statement 2 is correct: The orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and have the full force of law. They cannot be challenged in any court of law.

Statement 3 is incorrect: When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or the respective State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. The orders must be accepted as they are.

Consider the following statements regarding the Veto Powers of the President of India:
1. The President enjoys absolute, suspensive, and pocket veto powers.
2. The President has no veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
3. The President can return a Money Bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The President of India is vested with three types of vetoes: Absolute Veto (withholding assent), Suspensive Veto (returning for reconsideration), and Pocket Veto (taking no action).

Statement 2 is correct: The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. He cannot use any veto against it.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The President cannot return a Money Bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament (no Suspensive Veto). He can either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent, but usually, he gives his assent because the bill is introduced with his prior permission.

With reference to the Anti-Defection Law contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. An independent member of a House gets disqualified if he joins any political party after the election.
2. A nominated member of a House gets disqualified if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat.
3. The presiding officer of a House gets disqualified if he voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 2).

Statement 1 is correct: An independently elected member gets disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after the election.

Statement 2 is correct: A nominated member is allowed to join any political party within six months of taking his seat. However, if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months, he becomes subject to disqualification.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The law provides a specific exemption for the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman). A member does not incur disqualification if he voluntarily gives up the membership of his party after being elected as the presiding officer, provided he rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office. This is to maintain the dignity and impartiality of the office.

Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the Constitution:
1. The Rajya Sabha can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List by passing a resolution supported by a simple majority.
2. Such a resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year but can be renewed any number of times.
3. The law made by Parliament under this provision ceases to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: To authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest, the Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution supported by a Special Majority (i.e., not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting), not a simple majority.

Statement 2 is correct: The resolution remains in force for a maximum period of one year. However, it can be renewed any number of times, but not exceeding one year at a time.

Statement 3 is correct: The laws made by Parliament under this provision do not last indefinitely. They cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.

With respect to the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The Sixth Schedule deals with the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
2. The Governor of the respective state is empowered to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts under the Sixth Schedule.
3. An amendment to the Fifth Schedule requires a constitutional amendment under Article 368 with a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: While the Fifth Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas in any state (except Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram), the Sixth Schedule specifically provides for the administration of tribal areas in these four North-Eastern states.

Statement 2 is correct: Under the Sixth Schedule, the Governor has the power to organize and re-organize the autonomous districts. He can increase or decrease their areas, change their names, or define their boundaries.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution provides that any amendment to the Fifth Schedule (and Sixth Schedule) can be made by the Parliament by a simple majority. Such laws are explicitly declared as NOT being considered amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.

Regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 143), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The President can refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or is likely to arise.
2. The Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion on all matters referred to it by the President.
3. The opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is advisory and not binding on the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 143 authorizes the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on two categories of matters: (a) any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or is likely to arise, and (b) any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty or agreement.

Statement 2 is incorrect: In the first category (question of public importance), the Supreme Court may tender or may REFUSE to tender its opinion to the President. It is only in the second category (pre-constitution treaties) that the Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion.

Statement 3 is correct: In both cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the President.

Consider the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings:
1. It was created on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.
2. It consists of 30 members, out of which 20 are from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
3. A minister can be a member of this committee but cannot be appointed as its Chairman.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only one

All, Indian Polity

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The Committee on Public Undertakings was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Originally, it had 15 members, but in 1974, its membership was raised to 22 (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha), not 30.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Like the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimates Committee, a minister CANNOT be elected as a member of the Committee on Public Undertakings at all.

With reference to the State Election Commission (SEC), consider the following statements:
1. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the state.
2. The State Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of a High Court.
3. The SEC submits its annual performance report to the Election Commission of India (ECI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 243K of the Constitution, the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the panchayats and municipalities are vested in a State Election Commission, consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.

Statement 2 is correct: To ensure independence, the State Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court (i.e., by the President through a parliamentary resolution).

Statement 3 is incorrect: The SEC is an independent constitutional body and does not work under the Election Commission of India (ECI). Therefore, it does not submit its reports to the ECI. It operates exclusively for local body elections.

Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committees in the Union Government:
1. They are extra-constitutional in emergence, meaning they are not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of all the Cabinet Committees.
3. The Political Affairs Committee is often described as a "Super-Cabinet".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional. They are established by the Prime Minister under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961, to reduce the workload of the Cabinet.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Prime Minister heads most of the important committees (like the Political Affairs Committee, Economic Affairs Committee, and Appointments Committee), he does not chair all of them. For instance, the Cabinet Committee on Accommodation and the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs are usually chaired by the Union Home Minister.

Statement 3 is correct: Out of all the Cabinet Committees, the Political Affairs Committee is the most powerful. It handles all critical political matters and is often described as a "Super-Cabinet".

Which of the following historical Acts introduced the system of "Double Government" by distinguishing between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company?

Regulating Act of 1773|Pitt's India Act of 1784|Charter Act of 1833|Government of India Act of 1858

Pitt's India Act of 1784

All, Indian Polity

The correct answer is Pitt's India Act of 1784.

Pitt's India Act is highly significant for two reasons: it distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company for the first time, and it created a system of double government. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage commercial affairs but created a new body called the 'Board of Control' to manage political affairs. The Board of Control was empowered to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.

Under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, protection against arrest and detention is provided. In the case of Preventive Detention, consider the following statements:
1. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
2. The Constitution divides the legislative power with regard to preventive detention concurrently between the Parliament and State Legislatures for all subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 22 states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months, unless an advisory board (consisting of persons qualified to be High Court judges) reports that there is sufficient cause for such extended detention. (The 44th Amendment Act sought to reduce this to two months, but this provision was not notified, so three months remains the rule).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does NOT divide it concurrently for "all subjects". It divides the legislative power into two parts. Parliament has EXCLUSIVE authority to make laws of preventive detention connected with defence, foreign affairs, and the security of India. Both Parliament and State Legislatures possess CONCURRENT authority for reasons connected with the security of a state, maintenance of public order, and maintenance of supplies/services essential to the community.

Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:
1. The electoral college for the Vice-President consists of only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. The members of the State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in his election.
3. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal, and the resolution for removal can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The electoral college for the Vice-President consists of BOTH elected and nominated members of the Parliament. (In contrast, the President's electoral college consists of only elected members).

Statement 2 is correct: Members of the State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the election of the Vice-President, whereas they do participate in the election of the President.

Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the President, no formal impeachment process is required for the Vice-President. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha (effective majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha (simple majority). Crucially, this resolution can be introduced ONLY in the Rajya Sabha, not in the Lok Sabha.

With reference to Article 20 of the Indian Constitution (Protection in respect of conviction for offences), consider the following statements:
1. The protection against 'double jeopardy' is available in proceedings before a court of law as well as departmental or administrative authorities.
2. The protection against 'self-incrimination' extends to oral and documentary evidence but does not cover the compulsory production of material objects.
3. The prohibition against 'ex-post-facto laws' applies only to criminal laws and not to civil or tax laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The protection against double jeopardy (no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once) is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. It is NOT available in proceedings before departmental or administrative authorities as they are not of judicial nature.

Statement 2 is correct: Protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral and documentary evidence. However, the Supreme Court has clarified that it does NOT extend to: compulsory production of material objects, giving thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, or compulsory exhibition of the body.

Statement 3 is correct: An ex-post-facto law is one that imposes penalties retrospectively. This limitation is imposed only on criminal laws, not on civil laws or tax laws. Hence, a civil liability or a tax can be imposed retrospectively.

Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee of the Parliament:
1. It is the largest committee of the Parliament, consisting of 30 members.
2. Its members are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. A minister cannot be elected as a member of this committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the Parliament. Originally it had 25 members, but in 1956 its membership was raised to 30.

Statement 2 is incorrect: All the 30 members of the Estimates Committee are elected EXCLUSIVELY from the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee, unlike the Public Accounts Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings which have joint representation.

Statement 3 is correct: Like other major financial committees, a minister is not eligible to be elected as a member of the Estimates Committee. The chairman of the committee is invariably chosen from the ruling party by the Speaker.

With respect to Center-State legislative relations (Article 254), what happens when there is a repugnancy (conflict) between a Central law and a State law on a subject listed in the Concurrent List?
1. The Central law always prevails over the State law under all circumstances.
2. If the State law was reserved for the consideration of the President and received his assent, the State law prevails in that state.
3. Even if a State law receives the President's assent, the Parliament cannot subsequently override it by making a new law on the same subject.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the general rule is that the Central law prevails over a State law in case of a conflict on a Concurrent List subject, there is a specific constitutional exception to this rule.

Statement 2 is correct: The exception (Article 254(2)) states that if the State law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, then the State law prevails in that respective state over the conflicting Central law.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Even if a State law prevails due to the President's assent, the Parliament is NOT deprived of its power. The Parliament can override such a State law by subsequently making a new law on the same matter, including adding to, amending, varying, or repealing the law made by the State legislature.

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32):
1. The Parliament can empower any other court to issue directions, orders, and writs of all kinds without prejudicing the Supreme Court's powers.
2. The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 32(3) clearly provides that the Parliament can, by law, empower any other court to exercise within its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court regarding writs. (Note: High Courts already have this power under Article 226, so this provision refers to courts other than High Courts).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 32(4) states that the right guaranteed by this article shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution. The Constitution itself provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights during a National Emergency (under Article 359).

Which of the following authorities are entitled to the 'Parliamentary Privileges' available under Article 105 of the Constitution?
1. Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2. The Attorney General of India
3. The President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Members of Parliament and its committees are entitled to parliamentary privileges, which give them certain rights and immunities (like freedom of speech in Parliament, immunity from civil proceedings during sessions, etc.).

Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution extends these privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. This includes the Attorney General of India and Union Ministers.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Even though the President is an integral part of the Parliament, he does not enjoy parliamentary privileges under Article 105. He enjoys separate personal and official privileges and immunities under Article 361 of the Constitution.

Consider the following statements regarding the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. The office was provided for in the original Constitution under Part XVII.
2. He is appointed by the President of India.
3. His duty is to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for both linguistic and religious minorities.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only one

All, Indian Polity

Only Statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The original Constitution did not make any provision for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. It was added later by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956, which inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII based on the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 350-B states that there shall be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities to be appointed by the President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It is his duty to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for "linguistic minorities" ONLY under the Constitution, not religious minorities. The National Commission for Minorities (a statutory body) deals with religious minorities.

With reference to the composition of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution fixes the maximum strength of an assembly at 500 and the minimum strength at 60.
2. The Governor is empowered to nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community if they are inadequately represented.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies. (However, exceptions are made for smaller states like Sikkim, Goa, and Mizoram where the minimum number is fixed lower).

Statement 2 is incorrect in the current context: Previously, the Governor had the power to nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community (Article 333). However, the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2019 abolished the nomination of Anglo-Indians in both the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies by not extending the provision beyond January 2020.

Which of the following functions is/are performed by the Election Commission of India?
1. Preparing electoral rolls for the elections of the State Legislative Councils.
2. Advising the President on matters relating to the disqualification of Members of Parliament.
3. Conducting elections to the Municipalities and Panchayats.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Election Commission of India (ECI) superintends, directs, and controls the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to the Parliament (both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the State Legislatures (both Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils), as well as the offices of the President and Vice-President.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 103, the President decides on the disqualification of an MP (under circumstances other than the anti-defection law), but he must obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act according to such opinion. Thus, the ECI has an advisory jurisdiction in this matter.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The conduct of elections to local bodies (Municipalities and Panchayats) is the exclusive responsibility of the State Election Commissions, not the Election Commission of India.

According to the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), which of the following is explicitly mentioned in Article 43 of the Constitution?
1. To secure a living wage and a decent standard of life for all workers.
2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.
3. To secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Article 43 explicitly directs the State to endeavor to secure to all workers (agricultural, industrial, or otherwise) a living wage, conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life, and full enjoyment of leisure. It also specifically directs the State to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While the participation of workers in the management of industries is a Directive Principle, it is NOT under Article 43. It was added later by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976) as a separate article: Article 43A. Therefore, it is not part of the original Article 43.

Which of the following recommendations were made by the Sarkaria Commission regarding Centre-State relations?
1. Article 356 (President's Rule) should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a measure of last resort.
2. The institution of All-India Services (IAS, IPS, IFoS) should be abolished to strengthen State autonomy.
3. A permanent Inter-State Council should be set up under Article 263.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 3 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 2 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Sarkaria Commission (1983-88) strongly recommended that Article 356 should be used very sparingly and only as a last resort when all available alternatives fail to prevent or rectify a breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commission did NOT recommend abolishing the All-India Services. On the contrary, it recommended that the institution of All-India Services should be further strengthened and that more such services should be created.

Statement 3 is correct: It recommended the setting up of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution. This recommendation was accepted and the council was set up in 1990.

With reference to the Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. In civil cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court only if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance.
2. In criminal cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court as a matter of right if the High Court has reversed an order of acquittal and sentenced the accused to death.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 133, in civil cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgment of a High Court if the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance and that, in its opinion, the question needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 134, in criminal cases, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court if the High Court (a) has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death, or (b) has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate court and convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death.

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Adjournment Motion' in the Indian Parliament:
1. It can be introduced in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted.
3. It involves an element of censure against the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: An Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. However, it can ONLY be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device.

Statement 2 is correct: It needs the support of at least 50 members to be admitted in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 is correct: Since it interrupts the normal business of the House and discusses a matter of urgent public importance, it involves an element of censure (strong disapproval) against the government. This is another reason why it is not allowed in the Rajya Sabha.

The Justice J.S. Verma Committee (1999) is primarily associated with which of the following areas of the Indian Constitution?

Reviewing the Centre-State relations|Operationalizing the suggestions to teach Fundamental Duties to the citizens|Recommending reforms in the electoral processes|Reviewing the working of the Anti-Defection Law

Operationalizing the suggestions to teach Fundamental Duties to the citizens

All, Indian Polity

The correct answer is Operationalizing the suggestions to teach Fundamental Duties to the citizens.

The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of the Citizens (1999) was constituted to operationalize the suggestions to teach Fundamental Duties to the citizens of the country. The committee identified the existence of legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties (like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act 1971, Wildlife Protection Act 1972, etc.) and recommended making the citizens more aware of these duties.

Consider the following statements comparing the Rajya Sabha (RS) and the State Legislative Council (SLC):
1. While the RS can delay an ordinary bill for up to six months, the SLC can delay it for a maximum of four months.
2. Unlike the RS, members of the SLC have no power to participate in the election of the President of India.
3. Both the RS and the SLC can originate Money Bills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum of six months, after which a joint sitting can be summoned. The State Legislative Council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months in total (3 months in the first instance and 1 month in the second instance), and there is no provision for a joint sitting in state legislatures.

Statement 2 is correct: Elected members of the Rajya Sabha form part of the Electoral College for the President's election. Members of the State Legislative Councils do NOT participate in the President's election at all.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Neither the Rajya Sabha nor the State Legislative Council can originate a Money Bill. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (at the Centre) and the Legislative Assembly (in the States).

Consider the following statements regarding a Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution:
1. A proclamation declaring a Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
2. Once approved by the Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: A proclamation declaring a Financial Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within TWO months (not one month) from the date of its issue. (Only a National Emergency under Article 352 needs approval within one month).

Statement 2 is correct: Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things: (a) there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation, and (b) repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.

With reference to Article 21A (Right to Education), consider the following statements:
1. It was added to the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
2. It mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 0 to 14 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Article 21A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 21A specifically mandates education for children in the age group of 6 to 14 years, NOT 0 to 14 years. The early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years is provisioned under the Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 45).

Which of the following bodies is/are explicitly mandated to be constituted under the provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)?
1. District Planning Committee
2. Metropolitan Planning Committee
3. State Finance Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three bodies are integrated into the 74th Amendment Act framework.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 243ZD mandates every state to constitute a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by the panchayats and the municipalities in the district.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 243ZE mandates every metropolitan area to constitute a Metropolitan Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 243Y states that the State Finance Commission (constituted under Article 243-I of the 73rd Amendment) shall also review the financial position of the municipalities and make recommendations to the Governor.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
1. It presents its annual report directly to the Parliament of India.
2. While investigating any matter, the Commission has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: The NCSC does not present its report directly to the Parliament. It presents its annual report (or special reports) to the President of India. The President then places all such reports before the Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the action taken on the recommendations.

Statement 2 is correct: The Commission, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit. This includes summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person, examining on oath, requiring the discovery and production of any document, and receiving evidence on affidavits.

With reference to Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholders, consider the following statements:
1. They are entitled to a multiple entry, multi-purpose, life-long visa for visiting India.
2. They enjoy equal rights with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties.
3. They have voting rights in Lok Sabha elections but not in State Assembly elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: OCI cardholders are granted a multiple entry, multi-purpose, life-long visa for visiting India for any length of time and for any purpose.

Statement 2 is incorrect: OCI cardholders do NOT enjoy equal rights with NRIs regarding the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. They are not allowed to acquire agricultural land, farmhouses, or plantation properties in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: OCI cardholders are not citizens of India. Therefore, they do not have any voting rights in any elections (Lok Sabha, State Assembly, or Local bodies), nor are they eligible to hold constitutional posts.

Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission:
1. It is constituted by the Governor of the state every five years.
2. It recommends the principles that should govern the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the state and the panchayats.
3. The recommendations of the State Finance Commission are binding on the State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 243-I of the Constitution, the Governor of a state shall, within one year from the commencement of the 73rd Amendment Act, and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a State Finance Commission.

Statement 2 is correct: It reviews the financial position of the panchayats and makes recommendations to the Governor regarding the distribution of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees between the state and the panchayats.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Like the Central Finance Commission, the recommendations of the State Finance Commission are only advisory in nature and are not binding on the State Government.

With reference to the ordinance-making power of the Governor under Article 213, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor can promulgate an ordinance only when the state legislative assembly is not in session.
2. The Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without the prior instructions from the President if a bill containing the same provisions would have required the President's previous sanction for its introduction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Governor can promulgate ordinances only when the legislative assembly (in a unicameral legislature) is not in session, or when both the houses of the state legislature (in a bicameral legislature) are not in session.

Statement 2 is correct: The Governor's ordinance-making power is not absolute. He needs prior instructions from the President in three cases: (a) if a bill containing the same provisions requires previous sanction of the President for introduction; (b) if he would have deemed it necessary to reserve a bill containing the same provisions for the President's consideration; and (c) if an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid without receiving the President's assent.

Consider the following statements regarding the writ of 'Habeas Corpus':
1. It can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
2. It can be issued when the detention is lawful and in accordance with the procedure established by law.
3. It is not issued when the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 3).

Statement 1 is correct: The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. It can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The writ is issued to release a person who has been detained unlawfully. It is NOT issued where the detention is lawful, valid, and in accordance with the procedure established by law.

Statement 3 is correct: The writ of Habeas Corpus is not issued in cases where the detention is by a competent court, or when the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court.

Which of the following constitutional amendments require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states?
1. Alteration of boundaries of states.
2. Any change in the lists of the Seventh Schedule.
3. Amendment of the provisions regarding the election of the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

All, Indian Polity

Certain provisions of the Constitution related to the federal structure require amendment by a special majority of the Parliament along with ratification by half of the state legislatures by a simple majority.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Alteration of boundaries of states (Article 3) is not considered a constitutional amendment under Article 368 and can be done by a simple majority of Parliament without state ratification.

Statement 2 is correct: Any change in the distribution of legislative powers (Union, State, and Concurrent lists) in the Seventh Schedule requires state ratification.

Statement 3 is correct: The election of the President and its manner (Articles 54 and 55) directly involves the states, hence amending it requires state ratification.

Consider the following statements comparing a Money Bill and an Ordinary Bill:
1. An Ordinary Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, whereas a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha has a maximum of 6 months to pass an Ordinary Bill, but only 14 days to pass a Money Bill.
3. The President can return an Ordinary Bill for reconsideration but cannot return a Money Bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 109, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. It can only originate in the Lok Sabha. Ordinary bills can originate in either House.

Statement 2 is correct: If the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. For an ordinary bill, the deadlock time limit is 6 months.

Statement 3 is correct: The President can use a suspensive veto (return for reconsideration) for an ordinary bill. However, under Article 111, he cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration because it is introduced with his prior recommendation.

With reference to the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008, consider the following statements:
1. Gram Nyayalayas can try only civil suits and have no jurisdiction over criminal cases.
2. The Gram Nyayalaya is guided by the principles of natural justice and is not strictly bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalayas have jurisdiction over both civil and criminal cases. They can try criminal cases, civil suits, claims, or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Act.

Statement 2 is correct: To ensure speedy and accessible justice, the Gram Nyayalayas are not bound by the strict rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. They are guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rules made by the High Court.

Consider the following statements regarding the separation of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes:
1. They were separated by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
2. Article 338 deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while Article 338A deals with the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Originally, Article 338 of the Constitution provided for a Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The 65th Amendment Act (1990) created a joint multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs. Later, the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated this combined commission into two separate bodies to better address their distinct issues.

Statement 2 is correct: Post the 2003 amendment, Article 338 governs the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and a new Article 338A was inserted to establish the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).

Which of the following is/are common features of both the Attorney General of India and the Advocate General of a State?
1. Both have the right of audience in all courts within their respective jurisdictions.
2. Both enjoy the privileges and immunities available to a member of the respective legislature.
3. Both are full-time government servants and are debarred from private legal practice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. The Advocate General has the right of audience in any court in the respective state.

Statement 2 is correct: Both officers enjoy the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament and a Member of the State Legislature, respectively (including the right to speak in legislative proceedings without the right to vote).

Statement 3 is incorrect: Neither the Attorney General nor the Advocate General is a full-time government servant. They are not debarred from private legal practice, provided they do not advise or hold a brief against the Government.

In which of the following situations can the Governor of a state exercise his 'constitutional discretion'?
1. Reserving a bill for the consideration of the President of India.
2. Recommending the imposition of President's Rule in the state.
3. Appointing the Chief Minister when no single party has a clear majority in the state legislative assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three statements represent situations where the Governor exercises discretion.

Statements 1 and 2 are instances of 'Constitutional Discretion' (explicitly or implicitly derived from the Constitution). The Governor acts independently of the state council of ministers while reserving a bill for the President (Article 200) and while recommending President's Rule (Article 356) if he feels the state government is not functioning according to the Constitution.

Statement 3 is an instance of 'Situational Discretion'. When a hung assembly occurs and no party has a clear majority, the Governor uses his discretionary judgment to invite the leader of the largest party or coalition to form the government and prove a majority.

Consider the following statements regarding the restrictions on Fundamental Rights during Martial Law (Article 34):
1. The concept of Martial Law has been explicitly defined in the Indian Constitution.
2. It affects only Fundamental Rights and not the ordinary laws of the land.
3. It can be imposed in any specific area of the country, not necessarily the entire country.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 2 and 3).

Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of Martial Law has been borrowed in India from English common law. However, the expression 'martial law' has NOT been defined anywhere in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct: Unlike a National Emergency (which affects Centre-State relations, legislative powers, revenue distribution, etc.), Martial Law affects ONLY Fundamental Rights. It suspends ordinary law and government to restore order but doesn't change the federal structure.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 34 allows for the restriction of Fundamental Rights while Martial Law is in force in "any area within the territory of India." It is localized, unlike a National Emergency which can be national or localized.

Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Property (Article 300A) in the Indian Constitution:
1. It is a legal and constitutional right, but not a Fundamental Right.
2. It can be regulated, curtailed, or abolished by an ordinary law without a constitutional amendment.
3. It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. It inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII, making it a constitutional/legal right.

Statement 2 is correct: Since it is no longer a Fundamental Right, it can be regulated or curtailed by an ordinary law passed by the Parliament or State Legislature. It does not require a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 300A states that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." This means private property is protected against arbitrary executive action, but the legislature can deprive a person of his property by making a valid law.

With reference to the Departmentally-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) of the Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. There are 24 DRSCs, each consisting of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha).
2. A minister is eligible to be nominated as a member of these committees if recommended by the Prime Minister.
3. They consider the demands for grants of the concerned ministries before they are discussed and voted in the Lok Sabha.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one|Only two|All three|None

Only two

All, Indian Polity

Exactly two statements are correct (Statements 1 and 3).

Statement 1 is correct: Currently, there are 24 DRSCs (16 working under the Lok Sabha and 8 under the Rajya Sabha). Each committee has 31 members.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The rules strictly prohibit a minister from being nominated as a member of any of the DRSCs. If a member, after nomination, is appointed as a minister, he/she ceases to be a member of the committee.

Statement 3 is correct: One of their main functions is to consider the Demands for Grants of the connected ministries/departments and make a report on them. Their reports are persuasive and not binding, but they greatly facilitate detailed parliamentary scrutiny.

Consider the following differences between Article 323A and Article 323B of the Constitution regarding Tribunals:
1. Under Article 323A, tribunals can be established only for public service matters, while Article 323B allows tribunals for various other matters like taxation and land reforms.
2. Tribunals under Article 323A can be established only by the Parliament, whereas under Article 323B, they can be established by both Parliament and State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 323A deals exclusively with administrative tribunals for matters related to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Article 323B deals with tribunals for a wide range of other matters, such as taxation, foreign exchange, industrial and labour disputes, and land reforms.

Statement 2 is correct: Tribunals under Article 323A can be established ONLY by the Parliament. However, tribunals under Article 323B can be established by BOTH Parliament and State Legislatures with respect to matters falling within their respective legislative competencies.

With respect to the State Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:
1. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not exceed 15 percent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly.
2. The number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a State shall not be less than 12.
3. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Chief Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act (2003) added these provisions to Article 164. It states that the total number of ministers (including the CM) shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly. It also specifies a minimum limit, stating that the number of ministers shall not be less than 12 (important for smaller states).

Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor, and the other ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the CM. However, the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the GOVERNOR, not the Chief Minister (though practically the Governor acts on the CM's advice).

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to Co-operative Societies. In this context, which of the following changes were made in the Constitution?
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right.
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of co-operative societies.
3. It added a new Part IX-B to the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only|2 and 3 only|1 and 3 only|1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

All, Indian Polity

All three statements are correct.

The 97th Amendment Act is entirely dedicated to co-operative societies and made three significant changes to the Constitution:
1. It amended Article 19(1)(c) to make the right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right.
2. It added a new Article 43B in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) requiring the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of co-operative societies.
3. It added a new Part IX-B (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT) detailing the incorporation, terms of board members, and elections of co-operative societies.

Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions for the State of Nagaland under Article 371A:
1. The Governor of Nagaland has special responsibility with respect to law and order in the state.
2. Acts of Parliament relating to the ownership and transfer of land and its resources do not apply to Nagaland unless its state legislative assembly decides so by a resolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 371A, the Governor of Nagaland has a special responsibility for law and order in the state as long as internal disturbances continue. In this matter, he can exercise his individual judgment after consulting the Council of Ministers.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 371A also protects Naga culture and land. It explicitly states that Acts of Parliament relating to Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources shall NOT apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly decides so by a resolution.

With reference to the official language of the Union, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution specifies Hindi written in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
2. The Constitution mandates that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in English until Parliament provides otherwise by law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

Both 1 and 2

All, Indian Polity

Both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 343(1) of the Constitution states that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. (However, it also allowed English to continue for a specified period, which was later extended indefinitely by the Official Languages Act, 1963).

Statement 2 is correct: Article 348 clearly mandates that until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court, as well as the authoritative texts of all bills, acts, and ordinances, shall be in the English language.

Following the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
1. The chairperson of the NHRC can only be a retired Chief Justice of India.
2. The term of office for the chairperson and members is three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

2 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior to the 2019 amendment, the chairperson of the NHRC had to be a retired Chief Justice of India. However, the 2019 Amendment Act changed this to allow either a retired Chief Justice of India OR a retired Judge of the Supreme Court to be appointed as the chairperson of the NHRC.

Statement 2 is correct: The 2019 Amendment Act reduced the term of office for the chairperson and members of both the NHRC and the State Human Rights Commissions (SHRCs) from five years to three years, or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. It also made them eligible for re-appointment.

Which of the following bodies find a direct mention in the Constitution of India?
1. National Commission for Minorities
2. National Commission for Women
3. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3 and 4 only|1, 3 and 4 only|1 and 2 only|1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4 only

All, Indian Polity

To answer this, one must differentiate between Statutory Bodies (created by acts of Parliament) and Constitutional Bodies (created directly by the Constitution).

Points 1 and 2 are Statutory Bodies: The National Commission for Minorities was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. The National Commission for Women was established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. They are NOT mentioned in the Constitution.

Points 3 and 4 are Constitutional Bodies: The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is mentioned under Article 350-B. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is mentioned under Article 148. Hence, only 3 and 4 find a direct mention in the Constitution.

Consider the following statements regarding the federal structure of the Indian Constitution:
1. The term 'Federation' has nowhere been used in the Constitution of India.
2. The Indian Constitution represents a 'destructive union of indestructible states'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only|2 only|Both 1 and 2|Neither 1 nor 2

1 only

All, Indian Polity

Statement 1 is correct: The term 'Federation' is deliberately avoided in the Constitution. Instead, Article 1 describes India as a 'Union of States'. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, this implies two things: first, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states (like the American Federation); and second, the states have no right to secede from the federation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is exactly the opposite. The USA is described as an "indestructible union of indestructible states". In contrast, India is described as an "indestructible union of destructible states". The Union (Centre) cannot be destroyed, but the states can be destroyed (their boundaries, names, or existence can be altered by the Parliament under Article 3).